A 65-year-old presents with sudden onset of right-sided calf and food pain. His pas medical history is significant for hypertension, type II diabetes, atrial fibrillation and stable angina. Physical examination reveals paleness of the right leg and diminished right popliteal pulse. Immediate angiography is ordered that reveals an obstructive thrombus in the right common femoral artery. The thrombus extraction is followed by a rapid surge of serum creatine kinase level which is best explained by?
A) Cellular swelling
B) Cell membrane damage
D) Glutathione peroxidase production
E) Mitochondrial vacuolization
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